There's an article in today's NY Times Magazine arguing that we shouldn't worry about languages dying out. I disagree with the author, in part because we disagree over the accuracy of translation. The odd thing is that I think an editor there agree with me: the headline is "If all languages are equal, why does it matter when one of them dies?" and my immediate reaction was to substitute "men" for "languages" in that question.
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(recent conversation with someone at my house, near a bookshelf. "um, does that book really say '201 dutch verbs'?" "yes! and here is my turkish phrase book, and here is the french verb book, and and and... " there was some rolling of eyes on their part. :)
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Although - I'm sorry, I can't help it - strictly speaking it's 'different from' not 'different than.'
Sorry. You know how these things are.
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Thank you. Thomas Jefferson is often, nowadays, mocked for having written "all men are created equal." But the mocking actually assumes that by "equal" he meant "equivalent."
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