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This is, I think, more technicality/terminology than anything. One of my fellow editors ran into this:
Is y-0 [equivalently, f(x)=0] a function that is symmetric with respect to the x-axis?
It seems to me and her that it is, but a site she often finds reliable claims that there are no such functions.
[Note: this is a technical point, not that she and I have forgotten how to graph simple curves: y=x2 is a function, but x=y2 is not a function but a relation.]
ETA: Thank you all. Within a couple of hours, I was able to go back to Marta and tell her that I'd had responses from people I trusted, including a Ph.D. mathematician, and she and I were right and the web site was wrong. When she first asked me, after lunch, she wasn't going to consult her usual source because the manuscript is due Monday.
Is y-0 [equivalently, f(x)=0] a function that is symmetric with respect to the x-axis?
It seems to me and her that it is, but a site she often finds reliable claims that there are no such functions.
[Note: this is a technical point, not that she and I have forgotten how to graph simple curves: y=x2 is a function, but x=y2 is not a function but a relation.]
ETA: Thank you all. Within a couple of hours, I was able to go back to Marta and tell her that I'd had responses from people I trusted, including a Ph.D. mathematician, and she and I were right and the web site was wrong. When she first asked me, after lunch, she wasn't going to consult her usual source because the manuscript is due Monday.